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You are here: BAILII >> Databases >> United Kingdom Statutory Instruments >> The Iran (Sanctions) (Human Rights) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 URL: http://www.bailii.org/uk/legis/num_reg/2019/uksi_2019134_en_1.html |
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This is the original version (as it was originally made). This item of legislation is currently only available in its original format.
Regulations made by the Secretary of State, laid before Parliament under section 55(3) of the Sanctions and Anti-Money Laundering Act 2018, for approval by resolution of each House of Parliament within sixty days beginning with the first day on which any provision of the Regulations comes into force (as provided for in section 56(5) of that Act), subject to extension for periods of dissolution, prorogation or adjournment for more than four days.
Statutory Instruments
Sanctions
Made
29th January 2019
Laid before Parliament
31st January 2019
Coming into force in accordance with regulation 1(2)
The Secretary of State(1), in exercise of the powers conferred by sections 1(1)(c) and (3)(b), 3(1)(a), (b)(ii), (d)(i) and (ii), 4, 5, 9(2)(a), 10(2)(a) and (c), (3) and (4), 11(2) to (9), 15(2)(a) and (b), (3), (4)(b), (5) and (6), 16, 17(2) to (9), 19, 20, 21(1), 54(1) and (2)(a), 56 and 62(4) to (6) of, and paragraphs 2(b), 4(b) and (c), 5(a)(ii) and (b), 6(a)(ii) and (b), 11(a)(ii), 13(b), (h), (k), (l), (m) and (n), 14(a), (f) and (k), 17(a), 19(a), 20 to 23 and 27 of Schedule 1 to, the Sanctions and Anti-Money Laundering Act 2018(2), and having decided, upon consideration of the matters set out in section 2(2) and 56(1) of that Act, that it is appropriate to do so, makes the following Regulations:
1.-(1) These Regulations may be cited as the Iran (Sanctions) (Human Rights) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019.
(2) These Regulations come into force in accordance with regulations made under section 56 of the Act.
2. In these Regulations-
"the Act" means the Sanctions and Anti-Money Laundering Act 2018;
"arrangement" includes any agreement, understanding, scheme, transaction or series of transactions, whether or not legally enforceable (but see paragraph 12 of Schedule 1 for the meaning of that term in that Schedule);
"CEMA" means the Customs and Excise Management Act 1979(3);
"the Commissioners" means the Commissioners for Her Majesty's Revenue and Customs;
"conduct" includes acts and omissions;
"document" includes information recorded in any form and, in relation to information recorded otherwise than in legible form, references to its production include producing a copy of the information in legible form;
"the Dual-Use Regulation" means Council Regulation (EC) No 428/2009 of 5 May 2009 setting up a Community regime for the control of exports, transfer, brokering and transit of dual-use items;
"the EU Iran (Human Rights) Regulation" means Council Regulation (EU) No 359/2011 of 12 April 2011, concerning restrictive measures directed against certain persons, entities and bodies in view of the situation in Iran(4), as it has effect in EU law;
"the Government of Iran" includes its public bodies, corporations or agencies, or any person acting on its behalf or at its direction;
"serious human rights violation or abuse" means a serious violation or abuse of any of the human rights specified in regulation 4;
"trade licence" means a licence under regulation 36;
"Treasury licence" means a licence under regulation 35(1);
"United Kingdom person" has the same meaning as in section 21 of the Act.
3.-(1) A United Kingdom person may contravene a relevant prohibition by conduct wholly or partly outside the United Kingdom.
(2) Any person may contravene a relevant prohibition by conduct in the territorial sea.
(3) In paragraphs (1) and (2) a "relevant prohibition" means any prohibition imposed-
(a)by regulation 9(2) (confidential information),
(b)by Part 3 (Finance),
(c)by Part 5 (Trade), or
(d)by a condition of a Treasury licence or a trade licence.
(4) A United Kingdom person may comply, or fail to comply, with a relevant requirement by conduct wholly or partly outside the United Kingdom.
(5) Any person may comply, or fail to comply, with a relevant requirement by conduct in the territorial sea.
(6) In paragraphs (4) and (5) a "relevant requirement" means any requirement imposed-
(a)by or under Part 7 (Information and records), or by reason of a request made under a power conferred by that Part, or
(b)by a condition of a Treasury licence or a trade licence.
(7) Nothing in this regulation is to be taken to prevent a relevant prohibition or a relevant requirement from applying to conduct (by any person) in the United Kingdom.
4. The purposes of the regulations contained in this instrument that are made under section 1 of the Act are to encourage the Government of Iran to comply with international human rights law and to respect human rights, including in particular, to-
(a)respect the right to life of persons in Iran, for example by refraining from the execution of juvenile offenders in all circumstances;
(b)respect the right of persons not to be subjected to torture or cruel, inhuman or degrading treatment or punishment in Iran, including-
(i)torture or other inhuman or degrading treatment with a view to extracting information from detained persons,
(ii)inhuman and degrading conditions in prisons, and
(iii)forms of punishment such as flogging and amputation;
(c)respect the right to liberty and security, including refraining from the arbitrary arrest and detention of persons in Iran;
(d)afford persons in Iran charged with criminal offences the right to a fair trial;
(e)afford journalists, human rights defenders and other persons in Iran the right to freedom of expression and peaceful assembly;
(f)secure the human rights of persons in Iran without discrimination, including on the basis of a person's sex, race, colour, language, religion, political or other opinion, national or social origin, association with a national minority, property, birth or other status.
5.-(1) The Secretary of State may designate persons by name for the purposes of any of the following-
(a)regulations 11 to 15 (Finance); and
(b)regulation 17 (Immigration).
(2) The Secretary of State may designate different persons for the purposes of the provisions mentioned in each of the sub-paragraphs of paragraph (1).
6.-(1) The Secretary of State may not designate a person under regulation 5 unless the Secretary of State-
(a)has reasonable grounds to suspect that that person is an involved person, and
(b)considers that the designation of that person is appropriate, having regard to-
(i)the purposes stated in regulation 4, and
(ii)the likely significant effects of the designation on that person (as they appear to the Secretary of State to be on the basis of the information that the Secretary of State has).
(2) In this regulation an "involved person" means a person who-
(a)is or has been involved in the commission of a serious human rights violation or abuse in Iran,
(b)is owned or controlled directly or indirectly (within the meaning of regulation 7) by a person who is or has been so involved,
(c)is acting on behalf of or at the direction of a person who is or has been so involved, or
(d)is a member of, or associated with, a person who is or has been so involved.
(3) Any reference in this regulation to being involved in the commission of a serious human rights violation or abuse in Iran includes being so involved in whatever way and wherever any actions constituting the involvement take place, and in particular includes-
(a)being responsible for, engaging in, providing support for, or promoting, any serious human rights violation or abuse in Iran;
(b)providing financial services, or making available funds or economic resources, that could contribute to any serious human rights violation or abuse in Iran;
(c)being involved in the supply to Iran of restricted goods or restricted technology or of material related to such goods or technology, or in providing financial services relating to such supply;
(d)being involved in the supply to Iran of goods or technology which could contribute to any serious human rights violation or abuse in Iran, or in providing financial services relating to such supply;
(e)being involved in assisting the contravention or circumvention of any relevant provision.
(4) In this regulation "relevant provision" means-
(a)any provision of Part 5 (Trade);
(b)any provision of the law of a country other than the United Kingdom made for purposes corresponding to a purpose of any provision of Part 5 (Trade).
(5) Nothing in any sub-paragraph of paragraph (3) is to be taken to limit the meaning of any of the other sub-paragraphs of that paragraph.
(6) In this regulation, "restricted goods" and "restricted technology" have the meanings given by Part 5.
7.-(1) A person who is not an individual ("C") is "owned or controlled directly or indirectly" by another person ("P") if either of the following two conditions is met (or both are met).
(2) The first condition is that P-
(a)holds directly or indirectly more than 50% of the shares in C,
(b)holds directly or indirectly more than 50% of the voting rights in C, or
(c)holds the right directly or indirectly to appoint or remove a majority of the board of directors of C.
(3) Schedule 1 contains provision applying for the purpose of interpreting paragraph (2).
(4) The second condition is that it is reasonable, having regard to all the circumstances, to expect that P would (if P chose to) be able, in most cases or in significant respects, by whatever means and, whether directly or indirectly, to achieve the result that affairs of C are conducted in accordance with P's wishes.
8.-(1) Paragraph (2) applies where the Secretary of State-
(a)has made a designation under regulation 5, or
(b)has by virtue of section 22 of the Act varied or revoked a designation made under that regulation.
(2) The Secretary of State-
(a)must without delay take such steps as are reasonably practicable to inform the designated person of the designation, variation or revocation, and
(b)must take steps to publicise the designation, variation or revocation.
(3) The information given under paragraph (2)(a) where a designation is made must include a statement of reasons.
(4) In this regulation a "statement of reasons", in relation to a designation, means a brief statement of the matters that the Secretary of State knows, or has reasonable grounds to suspect, in relation to the designated person which have led the Secretary of State to make the designation.
(5) Matters that would otherwise be required by paragraph (4) to be included in a statement of reasons may be excluded from it where the Secretary of State considers that they should be excluded-
(a)in the interests of national security or international relations,
(b)for reasons connected with the prevention or detection of serious crime in the United Kingdom or elsewhere, or
(c)in the interests of justice.
(6) The steps taken under paragraph (2)(b) must-
(a)unless one or more of the restricted publicity conditions is met, be steps to publicise generally-
(i)the designation, variation or revocation, and
(ii)in the case of a designation, the statement of reasons;
(b)if one or more of those conditions is met, be steps to inform only such persons as the Secretary of State considers appropriate of the designation, variation or revocation and (in the case of a designation) of the contents of the statement of reasons.
(7) The "restricted publicity conditions" are as follows-
(a)the designation is of a person believed by the Secretary of State to be an individual under the age of 18;
(b)the Secretary of State considers that disclosure of the designation, variation or revocation should be restricted-
(i)in the interests of national security or international relations,
(ii)for reasons connected with the prevention or detection of serious crime in the United Kingdom or elsewhere, or
(iii)in the interests of justice.
(8) Paragraph (9) applies if-
(a)when a designation is made, one or more of the restricted publicity conditions is met, but
(b)at any time when the designation has effect, it becomes the case that none of the restricted publicity conditions is met.
(9) The Secretary of State must-
(a)take such steps as are reasonably practicable to inform the designated person that none of the restricted publicity conditions is now met, and
(b)take steps to publicise generally the designation and the statement of reasons relating to it.
9.-(1) Where the Secretary of State in accordance with regulation 8(6)(b) informs only certain persons of a designation, variation or revocation and (in the case of a designation) of the contents of the statement of reasons, the Secretary of State may specify that any of that information is to be treated as confidential.
(2) A person ("P") who-
(a)is provided with information that is to be treated as confidential in accordance with paragraph (1), or
(b)otherwise obtains such information,
must not, subject to paragraph (3), disclose it if P knows, or has reasonable cause to suspect, that the information is to be treated as confidential.
(3) The prohibition in paragraph (2) does not apply to any disclosure made by P with lawful authority.
(4) For this purpose information is disclosed with lawful authority only if and to the extent that-
(a)the disclosure is by, or is authorised by, the Secretary of State,
(b)the disclosure is by or with the consent of the person who is or was the subject of the designation,
(c)the disclosure is necessary to give effect to a requirement imposed under or by virtue of these Regulations or any other enactment, or
(d)the disclosure is required, under rules of court, tribunal rules or a court or tribunal order, for the purposes of legal proceedings of any description.
(5) This regulation does not prevent the disclosure of information that is already, or has previously been, available to the public from other sources.
(6) A person who contravenes the prohibition in paragraph (2) commits an offence.
(7) The High Court (in Scotland, the Court of Session) may, on the application of-
(a)the person who is the subject of the information, or
(b)the Secretary of State,
grant an injunction (in Scotland, an interdict) to prevent a breach of the prohibition in paragraph (2).
(8) In paragraph (4)(c), "enactment" has the meaning given by section 54(6) of the Act.
10. In this Part a "designated person" means a person who is designated under regulation 5 for the purposes of regulations 11 to 15.
11.-(1) A person ("P") must not deal with funds or economic resources owned, held or controlled by a designated person if P knows, or has reasonable cause to suspect, that P is dealing with such funds or economic resources.
(2) Paragraph (1) is subject to Part 6 (Exceptions and licences).
(3) A person who contravenes the prohibition in paragraph (1) commits an offence.
(4) For the purposes of paragraph (1), a person "deals with" funds if the person-
(a)uses, alters, moves, transfers or allows access to the funds,
(b)deals with the funds in any other way that would result in any change in volume, amount, location, ownership, possession, character or destination, or
(c)makes any other change, including portfolio management, that would enable use of the funds.
(5) For the purposes of paragraph (1), a person "deals with" economic resources if the person-
(a)exchanges the economic resources for funds, goods or services, or
(b)uses the economic resources in exchange for funds, goods or services (whether by pledging them as security or otherwise).
(6) The reference in paragraph (1) to funds or economic resources that are "owned, held or controlled" by a person includes, in particular, a reference to-
(a)funds or economic resources in which the person has any legal or equitable interest, regardless of whether the interest is held jointly with any other person and regardless of whether any other person holds an interest in the funds or economic resources;
(b)any tangible property (other than real property), or bearer security, that is comprised in funds or economic resources and is in the possession of the person.
(7) For the purposes of paragraph (1), funds or economic resources are to be treated as owned, held or controlled by a designated person if they are owned, held or controlled by a person who is owned or controlled directly or indirectly (within the meaning of regulation 7) by the designated person.
(8) For the avoidance of doubt, the reference in paragraph (1) to a designated person includes P if P is a designated person.
12.-(1) A person ("P") must not make funds available directly or indirectly to a designated person if P knows, or has reasonable cause to suspect, that P is making the funds so available.
(2) Paragraph (1) is subject to Part 6 (Exceptions and licences).
(3) A person who contravenes the prohibition in paragraph (1) commits an offence.
(4) The reference in paragraph (1) to making funds available indirectly to a designated person includes, in particular, a reference to making them available to a person who is owned or controlled directly or indirectly (within the meaning of regulation 7) by the designated person.
13.-(1) A person ("P") must not make funds available to any person for the benefit of a designated person if P knows, or has reasonable cause to suspect, that P is making the funds so available.
(2) Paragraph (1) is subject to Part 6 (Exceptions and licences).
(3) A person who contravenes the prohibition in paragraph (1) commits an offence.
(4) For the purposes of this regulation-
(a)funds are made available for the benefit of a designated person only if that person thereby obtains, or is able to obtain, a significant financial benefit, and
(b)"financial benefit" includes the discharge (or partial discharge) of a financial obligation for which the designated person is wholly or partly responsible.
14.-(1) A person ("P") must not make economic resources available directly or indirectly to a designated person if P knows, or has reasonable cause to suspect-
(a)that P is making the economic resources so available, and
(b)that the designated person would be likely to exchange the economic resources for, or use them in exchange for, funds, goods or services.
(2) Paragraph (1) is subject to Part 6 (Exceptions and licences).
(3) A person who contravenes the prohibition in paragraph (1) commits an offence.
(4) The reference in paragraph (1) to making economic resources available indirectly to a designated person includes, in particular, a reference to making them available to a person who is owned or controlled directly or indirectly (within the meaning of regulation 7) by the designated person.
15.-(1) A person ("P") must not make economic resources available to any person for the benefit of a designated person if P knows, or has reasonable cause to suspect, that P is making the economic resources so available.
(2) Paragraph (1) is subject to Part 6 (Exceptions and licences).
(3) A person who contravenes the prohibition in paragraph (1) commits an offence.
(4) For the purposes of paragraph (1)-
(a)economic resources are made available for the benefit of a designated person only if that person thereby obtains, or is able to obtain, a significant financial benefit, and
(b)"financial benefit" includes the discharge (or partial discharge) of a financial obligation for which the designated person is wholly or partly responsible.
16.-(1) A person must not intentionally participate in activities knowing that the object or effect of them is, whether directly or indirectly-
(a)to circumvent any of the prohibitions in regulations 11 to 15, or
(b)to enable or facilitate the contravention of any such prohibition.
(2) A person who contravenes the prohibition in paragraph (1) commits an offence.
17. A person who is designated under regulation 5 for the purposes of this regulation is an excluded person for the purposes of section 8B of the Immigration Act 1971(5).
18. In this Part-
"restricted goods" means-
internal repression goods, and
interception and monitoring goods;
"restricted technology" means-
internal repression technology, and
interception and monitoring technology.
19. For the purposes of regulation 18-
"internal repression goods" means-
any thing specified in Schedule 2, other than-
any thing which is internal repression technology, or
any thing for the time being specified in-
Schedule 2 to the Export Control Order 2008(6), or
Annex Ⅰ of the Dual-Use Regulation, and
any tangible storage medium on which internal repression technology is recorded or from which it can be derived;
"internal repression technology" means any thing which is described in Schedule 2 as software or technology, within the meaning of that Schedule.
20.-(1) The following definitions apply for the purposes of regulation 18.
(2) "Interception and monitoring goods" means any item mentioned in sub-paragraph (a) or (b), provided that it may be used for interception and monitoring services-
(a)a relevant Schedule 3 item;
(b)any tangible storage medium on which interception and monitoring technology is recorded or from which it can be derived.
(3) "A relevant Schedule 3 item" means any thing described in Schedule 3, other than-
(a)any thing which is interception and monitoring technology, or
(b)any thing for the time being specified in-
(i)Schedule 2 to the Export Control Order 2008, or
(ii)Annex Ⅰ of the Dual-Use Regulation.
(4) "Interception and monitoring technology" means any thing-
(a)which is described as software in paragraph 2 of Schedule 3 provided that it may be used for interception and monitoring services, and
(b)which is described as software or other technology in paragraph 3 of Schedule 3,
(but see paragraph (5)).
(5) The definition of "interception and monitoring technology" does not apply to software which is-
(a)generally available to the public, or
(b)in the public domain.
(6) For the purpose of paragraph (5)-
(a)software is "generally available to the public" if-
(i)the software is sold from stock at retail selling points without restriction, by means of-
(aa)over the counter transactions,
(bb)mail order transactions,
(cc)electronic transactions, or
(dd)telephone order transactions, and
(ii)the software is designed for installation by the user without further substantial support by the supplier;
(b)software is "in the public domain" if the software has been made available without restrictions upon its further dissemination (and for this purpose copyright restrictions do not constitute a restriction upon its further dissemination).
21.-(1) For the purposes of this Part, "interception and monitoring services" means any service that has as its object or effect the interception of a communication in the course of its transmission by means of a telecommunication system.
(2) A person intercepts a communication in the course of its transmission by means of a telecommunication system if, and only if-
(a)the person does a relevant act in relation to the system, and
(b)the effect of the relevant act is to make any content of the communication available, at a relevant time, to a person who is not the sender or intended recipient of the communication.
(3) In paragraph (2) a "relevant act", in relation to a telecommunication system, means-
(a)modifying, or interfering with, the system or its operation;
(b)monitoring transmissions made by means of the system;
(c)monitoring transmissions made by wireless telegraphy to or from apparatus that is part of the system.
(4) In paragraph (2), a "relevant time", in relation to a communication transmitted by means of a telecommunication system, means-
(a)any time while the communication is being transmitted, and
(b)any time when the communication is stored in or by the system (whether before or after its transmission).
(5) For the purpose of paragraph (2), the cases in which any content of a communication is to be taken to be made available to a person at a relevant time include any case in which any of the communication is diverted or recorded at a relevant time so as to make the content of the communication available to a person after that time.
(6) In paragraph (3), references to modifying a telecommunication system include references to attaching any apparatus to, or otherwise modifying or interfering with-
(a)any part of the system, or
(b)any wireless telegraphy apparatus used for making transmissions to or from apparatus that is part of the system.
(7) For the purposes of this regulation, the following definitions also apply-
"apparatus" includes any equipment, machinery or device (whether physical or logical) and any wire or cable;
"communication", for the purpose of a telecommunication system, includes-
anything comprising speech, music, sounds, visual images or data of any description, and
signals serving for the impartation of anything between persons, between a person and a thing or between things, for the actuation or control of any apparatus;
"content", in relation to a communication and a telecommunication system, means any element of the communication, or any data attached to or logically associated with the communication, which reveals anything of what might reasonably be considered to be the meaning (if any) of the communication, but-
any meaning arising from the fact of the communication or from any data relating to the transmission of the communication is to be disregarded, and
anything which is systems data is not content;
"systems data" means any data that enables or facilitates, or identifies or describes anything connected with enabling or facilitating, the functioning of a telecommunication system (including any apparatus forming part of the system);
"a telecommunication system" means a system (including the apparatus comprised in it) that exists for the purpose of facilitating the transmission of communications by any means involving the use of electrical or electromagnetic energy;
"wireless telegraphy" and "wireless telegraphy apparatus" have the same meaning as in sections 116 and 117 of the Wireless Telegraphy Act 2006(7).
22.-(1) Paragraphs 32 and 36 of Schedule 1 to the Act (trade sanctions) apply for the purpose of interpreting expressions in this Part.
(2) In this Part, any reference to the United Kingdom includes a reference to the territorial sea.
(3) In this Part-
"brokering service" means any service to secure, or otherwise in relation to, an arrangement, including (but not limited to)-
the selection or introduction of persons as parties or potential parties to the arrangement,
the negotiation of the arrangement,
the facilitation of anything that enables the arrangement to be entered into, and
the provision of any assistance that in any way promotes or facilitates the arrangement;
"technical assistance", in relation to goods or technology, means-
technical support relating to the repair, development, production, assembly, testing, use or maintenance of the goods or technology, or
any other technical service relating to the goods or technology;
"transfer" has the meaning given by paragraph 37 of Schedule 1 to the Act.
(4) For the purposes of this Part, except for regulation 30 (provision of interception and monitoring services), a person is to be regarded as "connected with" Iran if the person is-
(a)an individual who is, or an association or combination of individuals who are, ordinarily resident in Iran,
(b)an individual who is, or an association or combination of individuals who are, located in Iran,
(c)a person, other than an individual, which is incorporated or constituted under the law of Iran, or
(d)a person, other than an individual, which is domiciled in Iran.
(5) For the purposes of regulation 30, a person is "connected with Iran" if the person works for the Government of Iran or otherwise carries on activities on its behalf or under its direction.
23.-(1) The export of restricted goods to, or for use in, Iran is prohibited.
(2) Paragraph (1) is subject to Part 6 (Exceptions and licences).
24.-(1) A person must not directly or indirectly supply or deliver restricted goods from a third country to a place in Iran.
(2) Paragraph (1) is subject to Part 6 (Exceptions and licences).
(3) A person who contravenes the prohibition in paragraph (1) commits an offence, but it is a defence for a person charged with that offence to show that the person did not know and had no reasonable cause to suspect that the goods were destined (or ultimately destined) for Iran.
(4) In this regulation, "third country" means a country that is not the United Kingdom, the Isle of Man or Iran.
25.-(1) A person must not-
(a)directly or indirectly make restricted goods or restricted technology available to a person connected with Iran;
(b)directly or indirectly make restricted goods or restricted technology available for use in Iran.
(2) Paragraph (1) is subject to Part 6 (Exceptions and licences).
(3) A person who contravenes a prohibition in paragraph (1) commits an offence, but-
(a)it is a defence for a person charged with the offence of contravening paragraph (1)(a) ("P") to show that P did not know and had no reasonable cause to suspect that the person was connected with Iran;
(b)it is a defence for a person charged with the offence of contravening paragraph (1)(b) to show that the person did not know and had no reasonable cause to suspect that the goods or technology were for use in Iran.
26.-(1) A person must not-
(a)transfer restricted technology to a place in Iran;
(b)transfer restricted technology to a person connected with Iran.
(2) Paragraph (1) is subject to Part 6 (Exceptions and licences).
(3) A person who contravenes a prohibition in paragraph (1) commits an offence, but-
(a)it is a defence for a person charged with the offence of contravening paragraph (1)(a) to show that the person did not know and had no reasonable cause to suspect that the transfer was to a place in Iran;
(b)it is a defence for a person charged with the offence of contravening paragraph (1)(b) ("P") to show that P did not know and had no reasonable cause to suspect that the person was connected with Iran.
27.-(1) A person must not directly or indirectly provide technical assistance relating to restricted goods or restricted technology-
(a)to a person connected with Iran, or
(b)for use in Iran.
(2) Paragraph (1) is subject to Part 6 (Exceptions and licences).
(3) A person who contravenes a prohibition in paragraph (1) commits an offence, but-
(a)it is a defence for a person charged with the offence of contravening paragraph (1)(a) ("P") to show that P did not know and had no reasonable cause to suspect that the person was connected with Iran;
(b)it is a defence for a person charged with the offence of contravening paragraph (1)(b) to show that the person did not know and had no reasonable cause to suspect that the goods or technology were for use in Iran.
28.-(1) A person must not directly or indirectly provide, to a person connected with Iran, financial services in pursuance of or in connection with an arrangement whose object or effect is-
(a)the export of restricted goods,
(b)the direct or indirect supply or delivery of restricted goods,
(c)directly or indirectly making restricted goods or restricted technology available to a person,
(d)the transfer of restricted technology, or
(e)the direct or indirect provision of technical assistance relating to restricted goods or restricted technology.
(2) A person must not directly or indirectly make funds available to a person connected with Iran in pursuance of or in connection with an arrangement mentioned in paragraph (1).
(3) A person must not directly or indirectly provide financial services or funds in pursuance of or in connection with an arrangement whose object or effect is-
(a)the export of restricted goods to, or for use in, Iran,
(b)the direct or indirect supply or delivery of restricted goods to a place in Iran,
(c)directly or indirectly making restricted goods or restricted technology available-
(i)to a person connected with Iran, or
(ii)for use in Iran,
(d)the transfer of restricted technology-
(i)to a person connected with Iran, or
(ii)to a place in Iran, or
(e)the direct or indirect provision of technical assistance relating to restricted goods or restricted technology-
(i)to a person connected with Iran, or
(ii)for use in Iran.
(4) Paragraphs (1) to (3) are subject to Part 6 (Exceptions and licences).
(5) A person who contravenes a prohibition in any of paragraphs (1) to (3) commits an offence, but-
(a)it is a defence for a person charged with an offence of contravening paragraph (1) or (2) ("P") to show that P did not know and had no reasonable cause to suspect that the person was connected with Iran;
(b)it is a defence for a person charged with an offence of contravening a prohibition in paragraph (3) to show that the person did not know and had no reasonable cause to suspect that the financial services or funds (as the case may be) were provided in pursuance of or in connection with an arrangement mentioned in that paragraph.
29.-(1) A person must not directly or indirectly provide brokering services in relation to an arrangement ("arrangement A") whose object or effect is-
(a)the direct or indirect supply or delivery of restricted goods from a third country to a place in Iran,
(b)directly or indirectly making restricted goods available in a third country for direct or indirect supply or delivery-
(i)to a person connected with Iran, or
(ii)to a place in Iran,
(c)directly or indirectly making restricted technology available in a third country for transfer-
(i)to a person connected with Iran, or
(ii)to a place in Iran,
(d)the transfer of restricted technology from a place in a third country-
(i)to a person connected with Iran, or
(ii)to a place in Iran,
(e)the direct or indirect provision, in a non-UK country, of technical assistance relating to restricted goods or restricted technology-
(i)to a person connected with Iran, or
(ii)for use in Iran,
(f)the direct or indirect provision, in a non-UK country, of financial services-
(i)to a person connected with Iran, where arrangement A, or any other arrangement in connection with which arrangement A is entered into, is an arrangement mentioned in regulation 28(1), or
(ii)where arrangement A, or any other arrangement in connection with which arrangement A is entered into, is an arrangement mentioned in regulation 28(3),
(g)directly or indirectly making funds available, in a non-UK country, to a person connected with Iran, where arrangement A, or any other arrangement in connection with which arrangement A is entered into, is an arrangement mentioned in regulation 28(1), or
(h)the direct or indirect provision of funds from a non-UK country, where arrangement A, or any other arrangement in connection with which arrangement A is entered into, is an arrangement mentioned in regulation 28(3).
(2) Paragraph (1) is subject to Part 6 (Exceptions and licences).
(3) A person who contravenes a prohibition in paragraph (1) commits an offence, but it is a defence for a person charged with that offence to show that the person did not know and had no reasonable cause to suspect that the brokering services were provided in relation to an arrangement mentioned in that paragraph.
(4) In this regulation-
"non-UK country" means a country that is not the United Kingdom;
"third country" means-
30.-(1) A person must not directly or indirectly provide interception and monitoring services to, or for the benefit of, a person connected with Iran.
(2) Paragraph (1) is subject to Part 6 (Exceptions and licences).
(3) A person who contravenes the prohibition in paragraph (1) commits an offence, but it is a defence for a person charged with that offence ("P") to show that P did not know and had no reasonable cause to suspect that the person to whom, or for whose benefit, the services were provided was connected with Iran.
31.-(1) A person must not intentionally participate in activities knowing that the object or effect of them is, whether directly or indirectly-
(a)to circumvent any of the prohibitions in Chapter 2 or 3 of this Part, or
(b)to enable or facilitate the contravention of any such prohibition.
(2) A person who contravenes a prohibition in paragraph (1) commits an offence.
32.-(1) Paragraph (2) applies where a person relies on a defence under Chapter 2 or 3 of this Part.
(2) If evidence is adduced which is sufficient to raise an issue with respect to the defence, the court must assume that the defence is satisfied unless the prosecution proves beyond reasonable doubt that it is not.
33.-(1) The prohibition in regulation 11 (asset-freeze in relation to designated persons) is not contravened by an independent person ("P") transferring to another person a legal or equitable interest in funds or economic resources where, immediately before the transfer, the interest-
(a)is held by P, and
(b)is not held jointly with the designated person.
(2) In paragraph (1) "independent person" means a person who-
(a)is not the designated person, and
(b)is not owned or controlled directly or indirectly (within the meaning of regulation 7) by the designated person.
(3) The prohibitions in regulations 11 to 13 (asset-freeze in relation to, and making funds available to, or for the benefit of, designated persons) are not contravened by a relevant institution crediting a frozen account with interest or other earnings due on the account.
(4) The prohibitions in regulations 12 and 13 (making funds available to, or for the benefit of, designated persons) are not contravened by a relevant institution crediting a frozen account where it receives funds transferred to that institution for crediting to that account.
(5) The prohibitions in regulations 12 and 13 are not contravened by the transfer of funds to a relevant institution for crediting to an account held or controlled (directly or indirectly) by a designated person, where those funds are transferred in discharge (or partial discharge) of an obligation which arose before the date on which the person became a designated person.
(6) The prohibitions in regulations 11 to 13 are not contravened in relation to a designated person ("P") by a transfer of funds from account A to account B, where-
(a)account A is with a relevant institution which carries on an excluded activity within the meaning of section 142D of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000(8),
(b)account B is with a ring-fenced body within the meaning of section 142A of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000(9), and
(c)accounts A and B are held or controlled (directly or indirectly) by P.
(7) In this regulation-
"designated person" has the same meaning as it has in Part 3 (Finance);
"frozen account" means an account with a relevant institution which is held or controlled (directly or indirectly) by a designated person;
"relevant institution" means a person that has permission under Part 4A of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000(10) (permission to carry on regulated activity).
(8) The definition of "relevant institution" in paragraph (7) is to be read with section 22 of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000(11), any relevant order under that section(12) and Schedule 2 to that Act(13).
34.-(1) Where an act would, in the absence of this paragraph, be prohibited by the prohibition in regulation 9(2) (confidentiality) or any prohibition in Part 3 (Finance) or 5 (Trade), that prohibition does not apply to the act if the act is one which a responsible officer has determined would be in the interests of-
(a)national security, or
(b)the prevention or detection of serious crime in the United Kingdom or elsewhere.
(2) Where, in the absence of this paragraph, a thing would be required to be done under or by virtue of a provision of Part 7 (Information and records) or Part 9 (Maritime enforcement), that requirement does not apply if a responsible officer has determined that not doing the thing in question would be in the interests of-
(a)national security, or
(b)the prevention or detection of serious crime in the United Kingdom or elsewhere.
(3) In this regulation "responsible officer" means a person in the service of the Crown or holding office under the Crown, acting in the course of that person's duty.
35.-(1) The prohibitions in regulations 11 to 15 (asset-freeze etc) do not apply to anything done under the authority of a licence issued by the Treasury under this paragraph.
(2) The Treasury may issue a licence which authorises acts by a particular person only where the Treasury consider that it is appropriate to issue the licence for a purpose set out in Schedule 4.
36. The prohibitions in Chapters 2 and 3 of Part 5 (Trade) do not apply to anything done under the authority of a licence issued by the Secretary of State under this regulation.
37.-(1) This regulation applies in relation to Treasury licences and trade licences.
(2) A licence must specify the acts authorised by it.
(3) A licence may be general or may authorise acts by a particular person or persons of a particular description.
(4) A licence may -
(a)contain conditions;
(b)be of indefinite duration or a defined duration.
(5) A person who issues a licence may vary, revoke or suspend it at any time.
(6) A person who issues, varies, revokes or suspends a licence which authorises acts by a particular person must give written notice to that person of the issue, variation, revocation or suspension of the licence.
(7) A person who issues, varies, revokes or suspends a general licence or a licence which authorises acts by persons of a particular description must take such steps as that person considers appropriate to publicise the issue, variation, revocation or suspension of the licence.
38.-(1) A person ("P") commits an offence if P knowingly or recklessly-
(a)provides information that is false in a material respect, or
(b)provides or produces a document that is not what it purports to be,
for the purpose of obtaining a Treasury licence (whether for P or anyone else).
(2) A person who purports to act under the authority of a Treasury licence but who fails to comply with any condition of the licence commits an offence.
39.-(1) A person ("P") commits an offence if P knowingly or recklessly-
(a)provides information that is false in a material respect, or
(b)provides or produces a document that is not what it purports to be,
for the purpose of obtaining a trade licence (whether for P or anyone else).
(2) A person who purports to act under the authority of a trade licence but who fails to comply with any condition of the licence commits an offence.
(3) A licence in respect of which an offence under paragraph (1) has been committed is to be treated as void from the time at which it was issued.
40.-(1) The Secretary of State may direct that, in relation to any person within regulation 17 whose name is specified, or who is of a specified description, section 8B(1) and (2) of the Immigration Act 1971, or section 8B(3) of that Act, have effect subject to specified exceptions.
(2) A direction may contain conditions.
(3) A direction must be of a defined duration (and that duration may be expressed in any way, including, for example, being expressed in a way such that the direction ceases to have effect on, or within a specified period after, the occurrence of a specified event).
(4) The Secretary of State may vary, revoke or suspend a direction at any time.
(5) On the issue, variation, revocation or suspension of a direction, the Secretary of State may take such steps as the Secretary of State considers appropriate to publicise the issue, variation, revocation or suspension of the direction.
(6) In this regulation "specified" means specified in a direction.
41.-(1) A relevant firm must inform the Treasury as soon as practicable if-
(a)it knows, or has reasonable cause to suspect, that a person-
(i)is a designated person, or
(ii)has committed an offence under any provision of Part 3 (Finance) or regulation 38 (finance: licensing offences), and
(b)the information or other matter on which the knowledge or cause for suspicion is based came to it in the course of carrying on its business.
(2) Where a relevant firm informs the Treasury under paragraph (1), it must state-
(a)the information or other matter on which the knowledge or suspicion is based, and
(b)any information it holds about the person by which the person can be identified.
(3) Paragraph (4) applies if-
(a)a relevant firm informs the Treasury under paragraph (1) that it knows, or has reasonable cause to suspect, that a person is a designated person, and
(b)that person is a customer of the relevant firm.
(4) The relevant firm must also state the nature and amount or quantity of any funds or economic resources held by it for the customer at the time when it first had the knowledge or suspicion.
(5) A relevant institution must inform the Treasury without delay if that institution-
(a)credits a frozen account in accordance with regulation 33(4) (finance: exceptions from prohibitions), or
(b)transfers funds from a frozen account in accordance with regulation 33(6).
(6) A person who fails to comply with a requirement in paragraph (1), (2) or (4) commits an offence.
(7) In this regulation-
"designated person" has the same meaning as it has in Part 3 (Finance);
"frozen account" has the same meaning as it has in regulation 33;
"relevant firm" is to be read in accordance with regulation 42;
"relevant institution" has the same meaning as it has in regulation 33.
42.-(1) The following are relevant firms for the purposes of regulation 41-
(a)a person that has permission under Part 4A of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (permission to carry on regulated activity);
(b)an undertaking that by way of business-
(i)operates a currency exchange office,
(ii)transmits money (or any representation of monetary value) by any means, or
(iii)cashes cheques that are made payable to customers;
(c)a firm or sole practitioner that is-
(i)a statutory auditor within the meaning of Part 42 of the Companies Act 2006 (statutory auditors)(14), or
(ii)a local auditor within the meaning of section 4(1) of the Local Audit and Accountability Act 2014 (general requirements for audit)(15);
(d)a firm or sole practitioner that provides to other persons, by way of business-
(i)accountancy services,
(ii)legal or notarial services,
(iii)advice about tax affairs, or
(iv)trust or company services within the meaning of paragraph (2);
(e)a firm or sole practitioner that carries out, or whose employees carry out, estate agency work;
(f)the holder of a casino operating licence within the meaning given by section 65(2)(a) of the Gambling Act 2005 (nature of a licence)(16);
(g)a person engaged in the business of making, supplying, selling (including selling by auction) or exchanging-
(i)articles made from gold, silver, platinum or palladium, or
(ii)precious stones or pearls.
(2) In paragraph (1) "trust or company services" means any of the following services-
(a)forming companies or other legal persons;
(b)acting, or arranging for another person to act-
(i)as a director or secretary of a company,
(ii)as a partner of a partnership, or
(iii)in a similar capacity in relation to other legal persons;
(c)providing a registered office, business address, correspondence or administrative address or other related services for a company, partnership or any other legal person or arrangement;
(d)acting, or arranging for another person to act, as-
(i)a trustee of an express trust or similar legal arrangement, or
(ii)a nominee shareholder for a person.
(3) In paragraph (1)-
"estate agency work" is to be read in accordance with section 1 of the Estate Agents Act 1979(17), but as if references in that section to disposing of or acquiring an interest in land included (despite anything in section 2 of that Act) references to disposing of or acquiring an estate or interest in land outside the United Kingdom where that estate or interest is capable of being owned or held as a separate interest;
"firm" means any entity that, whether or not a legal person, is not an individual, and includes a body corporate and a partnership or other unincorporated body.
(4) Paragraph (1)(a) and (b) is to be read with section 22 of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000, any relevant order under that section and Schedule 2 to that Act.
(5) For the purposes of regulation 41(1), information or another matter comes to a relevant firm "in the course of carrying on its business" if the information or other matter comes to the firm-
(a)in the case of a relevant firm within paragraph (1)(a), in the course of carrying on an activity in respect of which the permission mentioned in that provision is required;
(b)in the case of a relevant firm within paragraph (1)(c)(i), in the course of carrying out statutory audit work within the meaning of section 1210 of the Companies Act 2006 (meaning of statutory auditor)(18);
(c)in the case of a relevant firm within paragraph (1)(c)(ii), in the course of carrying out an audit required by the Local Audit and Accountability Act 2014;
(d)in the case of a relevant firm within paragraph (1)(f), in the course of carrying on an activity in respect of which the licence mentioned in that provision is required;
(e)in the case of a relevant firm within any other provision of paragraph (1), in the course of carrying on an activity mentioned in that provision.
43.-(1) The Treasury may request a designated person to provide information about-
(a)funds or economic resources owned, held or controlled by the designated person, or
(b)any disposal of such funds or economic resources.
(2) The Treasury may request a designated person to provide such information as the Treasury may reasonably require about expenditure-
(a)by the designated person, or
(b)for the benefit of the designated person.
(3) For the purposes of paragraph (2), expenditure for the benefit of a designated person includes expenditure on the discharge (or partial discharge) of a financial obligation for which the designated person is wholly or partly responsible.
(4) The power in paragraph (1) or (2) is exercisable only where the Treasury believe that it is necessary for the purpose of monitoring compliance with or detecting evasion of any provision of Part 3 (Finance).
(5) The Treasury may request a person acting under a Treasury licence to provide information about-
(a)funds or economic resources dealt with under the licence, or
(b)funds or economic resources made available under the licence.
(6) The Treasury may request a person to provide information within paragraph (7) if the Treasury believe that the person may be able to provide the information.
(7) Information within this paragraph is such information as the Treasury may reasonably require for the purpose of-
(a)establishing for the purposes of any provision of Part 3 (Finance)-
(i)the nature and amount or quantity of any funds or economic resources owned, held or controlled by a designated person,
(ii)the nature and amount or quantity of any funds or economic resources made available directly or indirectly to, or for the benefit of, a designated person, or
(iii)the nature of any financial transactions entered into by a designated person;
(b)monitoring compliance with or detecting evasion of-
(i)any provision of Part 3,
(ii)regulation 41 (finance: reporting obligations), or
(iii)any condition of a Treasury licence;
(c)detecting or obtaining evidence of the commission of an offence under Part 3 or regulation 38 (finance: licensing offences) or 41 (finance: reporting obligations).
(8) The Treasury may specify the way in which, and the period within which, information is to be provided.
(9) If no such period is specified, the information which has been requested must be provided within a reasonable time.
(10) A request may include a continuing obligation to keep the Treasury informed as circumstances change, or on such regular basis as the Treasury may specify.
(11) Information requested under this regulation may relate to any period of time during which a person is, or was, a designated person.
(12) Information requested by virtue of paragraph (1)(b), (2) or (7)(a)(iii) may relate to any period before a person became a designated person (as well as, or instead of, any subsequent period).
(13) Expressions used in this regulation have the same meaning as they have in Part 3.
44.-(1) A request under regulation 43 may include a request to produce specified documents or documents of a specified description.
(2) Where the Treasury request that documents be produced, the Treasury may-
(a)take copies of or extracts from any document so produced,
(b)request any person producing a document to give an explanation of it, and
(c)where that person is a body corporate, partnership or unincorporated body other than a partnership, request any person who is-
(i)in the case of a partnership, a present or past partner or employee of the partnership, or
(ii)in any other case, a present or past officer or employee of the body concerned,
to give such an explanation.
(3) Where the Treasury request a designated person or a person acting under a Treasury licence to produce documents, that person must-
(a)take reasonable steps to obtain the documents (if they are not already in the person's possession or control);
(b)keep the documents under the person's possession or control (except for the purpose of providing them to the Treasury or as the Treasury may otherwise permit).
(4) In this regulation "designated person" has the same meaning as it has in Part 3 (Finance).
45.-(1) A person commits an offence if that person-
(a)without reasonable excuse, refuses or fails within the time and in the manner specified (or, if no time has been specified, within a reasonable time) to comply with any request under regulation 43 (finance: powers to request information);
(b)knowingly or recklessly gives any information, or produces any document, which is false in a material particular in response to such a request;
(c)with intent to evade any provision of regulation 43 (finance: powers to request information) or 44 (finance: production of documents), destroys, mutilates, defaces, conceals or removes any document;
(d)otherwise intentionally obstructs the Treasury in the exercise of their powers under regulation 43 (finance: powers to request information) or 44 (finance: production of documents).
(2) Where a person is convicted of an offence under this regulation, the court may make an order requiring that person, within such period as may be specified in the order, to comply with the request.
46.-(1) Section 77A of CEMA(19) applies in relation to a person carrying on a relevant activity as it applies in relation to a person concerned in the importation or exportation of goods but as if-
(a)in subsection (1), the reference to a person concerned in the importation or exportation of goods for which for that purpose an entry is required by regulation 5 of the Customs Controls on Importation of Goods Regulations 1991(20) or an entry or specification is required by or under CEMA were to a person carrying on a relevant activity;
(b)any other reference to importation or exportation were to a relevant activity;
(c)any other reference to goods were to the goods, technology, services or funds to which the relevant activity relates.
(2) For the purposes of paragraph (1), a "relevant activity" means an activity which would, unless done under the authority of a trade licence, constitute a contravention of-
(a)any prohibition in Chapter 2 or 3 of Part 5 (Trade) except the prohibition in regulation 23(1), or
(b)the prohibition in regulation 31 (circumventing etc prohibitions).
47.-(1) This regulation applies in relation to a person ("P") who does any act authorised by a general licence issued under regulation 36 (trade licences) ("the licence").
(2) P must keep a register or record containing such details as may be necessary to allow the following information to be identified in relation to each act done under the authority of the licence-
(a)a description of the act;
(b)a description of any goods, technology, services or funds to which the act relates;
(c)the date of the act or the dates between which the act took place;
(d)the quantity of any goods or funds to which the act relates;
(e)P's name and address;
(f)the name and address of any consignee of goods to which the act relates or any recipient of technology, services or funds to which the act relates;
(g)in so far as it is known to P, the name and address of the end-user of the goods, technology, services or funds to which the act relates;
(h)if different from P, the name and address of the supplier of any goods to which the act relates;
(i)any further information required by the licence.
(3) The register or record relating to an act must be kept until the end of the calendar year in which the register or record is created and for a further period of 4 years from the end of that calendar year.
(4) P must notify the Secretary of State in writing of P's name and the address at which the register or record may be inspected, and must make a further such notification if those details change.
(5) A notification under paragraph (4) must be given no later than 30 days after-
(a)P first does any act authorised by the licence, or
(b)there is any change to the details previously notified.
(6) A person who fails to comply with a requirement in paragraph (2), (3) or (4) commits an offence.
48.-(1) A person authorised by the Secretary of State or the Commissioners (an "official") may at any reasonable hour enter premises notified under regulation 47(4) for the purposes of monitoring compliance with, or detecting evasion of, regulation 47(2) or (3).
(2) An official may require any person on the premises to produce any register or record required to be kept under regulation 47, or any document included in such a register or record, that is in the person's possession or control.
(3) An official may inspect and copy any such register, record or document.
(4) An official must, if requested to do so, produce documentary evidence that he or she is authorised to exercise a power conferred by this regulation.
(5) A person commits an offence if, without reasonable excuse, the person-
(a)intentionally obstructs an official in the performance of any of the official's functions under this regulation, or
(b)fails to produce a register, record or document when reasonably required to do so by an official under this regulation.
49.-(1) The Secretary of State, the Treasury or the Commissioners may, in accordance with this regulation, disclose-
(a)any information obtained under or by virtue of Part 6 (Exceptions and licences), this Part or Part 9 (Maritime enforcement), or
(b)any information held in connection with-
(i)anything done under or by virtue of Part 2 (Designation of persons), Part 3 (Finance), Part 5 (Trade), or
(ii)any exception or licence under Part 6 or anything done in accordance with such an exception or under the authority of such a licence.
(2) Information referred to in paragraph (1) may be disclosed for, or in connection with, any of the following purposes-
(a)the exercise of functions under these Regulations;
(b)any purpose stated in regulation 4;
(c)facilitating, monitoring or ensuring compliance with these Regulations;
(d)taking any action with a view to instituting, or otherwise for the purposes of, any proceedings in the United Kingdom-
(i)for an offence under any provision of these Regulations,
(ii)for an offence under CEMA in connection with a prohibition mentioned in regulation 23(1) (export of restricted goods), or
(iii)in relation to a monetary penalty under section 146 of the Policing and Crime Act 2017 (breach of financial sanctions legislation)(21);
(e)taking any action with a view to instituting, or otherwise for the purposes of, any proceedings in any of the Channel Islands, the Isle of Man or any British overseas territory for an offence-
(i)under a provision in any such jurisdiction that is similar to a provision of these Regulations, or
(ii)in connection with a prohibition in any such jurisdiction that is similar to a prohibition referred to in sub-paragraph (d)(ii);
(f)compliance with an international obligation(22);
(g)facilitating the exercise by an authority outside the United Kingdom or by an international organisation of functions which correspond to functions under these Regulations.
(3) Information referred to in paragraph (1) may be disclosed to the following persons-
(a)a police officer;
(b)any person holding or acting in any office under or in the service of-
(i)the Crown in right of the Government of the United Kingdom,
(ii)the Crown in right of the Scottish Government, the Northern Ireland Executive or the Welsh Government,
(iii)the States of Jersey, Guernsey or Alderney or the Chief Pleas of Sark,
(iv)the Government of the Isle of Man, or
(v)the Government of any British overseas territory;
(c)any law officer of the Crown for Jersey, Guernsey or the Isle of Man;
(d)the Scottish Legal Aid Board;
(e)the Financial Conduct Authority, the Prudential Regulation Authority, the Bank of England, the Jersey Financial Services Commission, the Guernsey Financial Services Commission or the Isle of Man Financial Services Authority;
(f)any other regulatory body (whether or not in the United Kingdom);
(g)any organ of the United Nations;
(h)the Council of the European Union, the European Commission or the European External Action Service;
(i)the Government of any country;
(j)any other person where the Secretary of State, the Treasury or the Commissioners (as the case may be) considers that it is appropriate to disclose the information.
(4) Information referred to in paragraph (1) may be disclosed to any person with the consent of a person who, in their own right, is entitled to the information.
(5) In paragraph (4) "in their own right" means not merely in the capacity as a servant or agent of another person.
(6) In paragraph (1)(b)-
(a)the reference to information includes information obtained at a time when any provision of these Regulations is not in force, and
(b)the reference to a licence under Part 6 includes-
(i)a licence or authorisation which is treated as if it were a licence which had been issued under that Part, and
(ii)a licence which is deemed to have been issued under that Part.
50.-(1) A disclosure of information under regulation 49 does not breach any restriction on such disclosure imposed by statute or otherwise.
(2) But nothing in that regulation authorises a disclosure that-
(a)contravenes the data protection legislation, or
(b)is prohibited by any of Parts 1 to 7 or Chapter 1 of Part 9 of the Investigatory Powers Act 2016(23).
(3) Nothing in this Part is to be read as requiring a person who has acted or is acting as counsel or solicitor for any person to disclose any privileged information in their possession in that capacity.
(4) Regulation 49 does not limit the circumstances in which information may be disclosed apart from that regulation.
(5) Nothing in this Part limits any conditions which may be contained in a Treasury licence or a trade licence.
(6) In this regulation-
"the data protection legislation" has the same meaning as in the Data Protection Act 2018 (see section 3 of that Act)(24);
"privileged information" means information with respect to which a claim to legal professional privilege (in Scotland, to confidentiality of communications) could be maintained in legal proceedings.
51.-(1) A person who commits an offence under any provision of Part 3 (Finance) or regulation 38 (finance: licensing offences), is liable-
(a)on summary conviction in England and Wales, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 12 months or a fine (or both);
(b)on summary conviction in Scotland, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 12 months or a fine not exceeding the statutory maximum (or both);
(c)on summary conviction in Northern Ireland, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months or a fine not exceeding the statutory maximum (or both);
(d)on conviction on indictment, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 7 years or a fine (or both).
(2) A person who commits an offence under any provision of Part 5 (Trade) is liable-
(a)on summary conviction in England and Wales, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 12 months or a fine (or both);
(b)on summary conviction in Scotland, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 12 months or a fine not exceeding the statutory maximum (or both);
(c)on summary conviction in Northern Ireland, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months or a fine not exceeding the statutory maximum (or both);
(d)on conviction on indictment, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 10 years or a fine (or both).
(3) A person who commits an offence under regulation 9(6) (confidentiality), 39, 47(6) or 48(5) (offences in connection with trade licences) is liable-
(a)on summary conviction in England and Wales, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 12 months or a fine (or both);
(b)on summary conviction in Scotland, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 12 months or a fine not exceeding the statutory maximum (or both);
(c)on summary conviction in Northern Ireland, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months or a fine not exceeding the statutory maximum (or both);
(d)on conviction on indictment, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 2 years or a fine (or both).
(4) A person who commits an offence under regulation 41(6) or 45 (information offences in connection with Part 3) is liable-
(a)on summary conviction in England and Wales, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months or a fine (or both);
(b)on summary conviction in Scotland, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months or a fine not exceeding level 5 on the standard scale (or both);
(c)on summary conviction in Northern Ireland, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months or a fine not exceeding level 5 on the standard scale (or both).
(5) In relation to an offence committed before section 154(1) of the Criminal Justice Act 2003(25) comes into force the reference in each of paragraphs (1)(a), (2)(a) and (3)(a) to 12 months is to be read as a reference to 6 months.
52.-(1) Where an offence under these Regulations, committed by a body corporate-
(a)is committed with the consent or connivance of any director, manager, secretary or other similar officer of the body corporate, or any person who was purporting to act in any such capacity, or
(b)is attributable to any neglect on the part of any such person,
that person as well as the body corporate is guilty of the offence and is liable to be proceeded against and punished accordingly.
(2) In paragraph (1) "director", in relation to a body corporate whose affairs are managed by its members, means a member of the body corporate.
(3) Paragraph (1) also applies in relation to a body that is not a body corporate, with the substitution for the reference to a director of the body of a reference-
(a)in the case of a partnership, to a partner;
(b)in the case of an unincorporated body other than a partnership-
(i)where the body's affairs are managed by its members, to a member of the body;
(ii)in any other case, to a member of the governing body.
(4) Section 171(4) of CEMA (which is a provision similar to this regulation) does not apply to any offence under these Regulations to which that provision would, in the absence of this paragraph, apply.
53.-(1) Where an offence under regulation 9(6) (confidentiality), Part 3 (Finance), regulation 38 (finance: licensing offences) or regulation 41(6) or 45 (information offences in connection with Part 3) is committed in the United Kingdom-
(a)proceedings for the offence may be taken at any place in the United Kingdom, and
(b)the offence may for all incidental purposes be treated as having been committed at any such place.
(2) Where an offence under regulation 9(6) (confidentiality), Part 3 (Finance), Part 5 (Trade), Part 6 (Exceptions and licences) or Part 7 (Information and records) is committed outside the United Kingdom-
(a)proceedings for the offence may be taken at any place in the United Kingdom, and
(b)the offence may for all incidental purposes be treated as having been committed at any such place.
(3) In the application of paragraph (2) to Scotland, any such proceedings against a person may be taken-
(a)in any sheriff court district in which the person is apprehended or is in custody, or
(b)in such sheriff court district as the Lord Advocate may determine.
(4) In paragraph (3) "sheriff court district" is to be read in accordance with the Criminal Procedure (Scotland) Act 1995 (see section 307(1) of that Act)(26).
54.-(1) Paragraphs (2) and (3) apply if it is alleged that an offence under these Regulations has been committed by an unincorporated body (as opposed to by a member of the body).
(2) Proceedings in England and Wales or Northern Ireland for such an offence must be brought against the body in its own name.
(3) For the purposes of proceedings, for such an offence brought against an unincorporated body-
(a)rules of court relating to the service of documents have effect as if the body were a body corporate;
(b)the following provisions apply as they apply in relation to a body corporate-
(i)section 33 of the Criminal Justice Act 1925(27) and Schedule 3 to the Magistrates' Courts Act 1980(28);
(ii)section 18 of the Criminal Justice Act (Northern Ireland) 1945(29) and Article 166 of, and Schedule 4 to, the Magistrates' Courts (Northern Ireland) Order 1981(30).
(4) A fine imposed on an unincorporated body on its conviction of an offence under these Regulations is to be paid out of the funds of the body.
55.-(1) Proceedings for an offence under these Regulations which is triable only summarily may be brought within the period of 12 months beginning with the date on which evidence sufficient in the opinion of the prosecutor to justify the proceedings comes to the prosecutor's knowledge.
(2) But such proceedings may not be brought by virtue of paragraph (1) more than 3 years after the commission of the offence.
(3) A certificate signed by the prosecutor as to the date on which the evidence in question came to the prosecutor's knowledge is conclusive evidence of the date on which it did so; and a certificate to that effect and purporting to be so signed is to be treated as being so signed unless the contrary is proved.
(4) In relation to proceedings in Scotland-
(a)section 136(3) of the Criminal Procedure (Scotland) Act 1995 (date of commencement of summary proceedings) applies for the purposes of this regulation as it applies for the purposes of that section, and
(b)references in this regulation to the prosecutor are to be treated as references to the Lord Advocate.
56.-(1) Where the Commissioners investigate or propose to investigate any matter with a view to determining-
(a)whether there are grounds for believing that a relevant offence has been committed, or
(b)whether a person should be prosecuted for such an offence,
the matter is to be treated as an assigned matter.
(2) In paragraph (1) "assigned matter" has the meaning given by section 1(1) of CEMA(31).
(3) In this regulation a "relevant offence" means an offence under-
(a)Part 5 (Trade),
(b)regulation 39 (trade: licensing offences),
(c)regulation 47(6) (general trade licences: records), or
(d)regulation 48(5) (general trade licences: inspection of records).
(4) Section 138 of CEMA(32) (arrest of persons) applies to a person who has committed, or whom there are reasonable grounds to suspect of having committed, a relevant offence as it applies to a person who has committed, or whom there are reasonable grounds to suspect of having committed, an offence for which the person is liable to be arrested under the customs and excise Acts(33), but as if-
(a)any reference to an offence under, or for which a person is liable to be arrested under, the customs and excise Acts were to a relevant offence;
(b)in subsection (2), the reference to any person so liable were to a person who has committed, or whom there are reasonable grounds to suspect of having committed, a relevant offence.
(5) The provisions of CEMA mentioned in paragraph (6) apply in relation to proceedings for a relevant offence as they apply in relation to proceedings for an offence under the customs and excise Acts, but as if-
(a)any reference to the customs and excise Acts were to any of the provisions mentioned in paragraph (3)(a) to (d);
(b)in section 145(6), the reference to an offence for which a person is liable to be arrested under the customs and excise Acts were to a relevant offence;
(c)in section 151, the reference to any penalty imposed under the customs and excise Acts were to any penalty imposed under these Regulations in relation to a relevant offence;
(d)in section 154(2)-
(i)the reference to proceedings relating to customs or excise were to proceedings under any of the provisions mentioned in paragraph (3)(a) to (d), and
(ii)the reference to the place from which any goods have been brought included a reference to the place to which goods have been exported, supplied or delivered or the place to or from which technology has been transferred.
(6) The provisions of CEMA are sections 145, 146, 147, 148(1), 150, 151, 152, 154 and 155(34) (legal proceedings).
57.-(1) Paragraph (2) applies where a person is guilty of an offence under section 68(2) of CEMA in connection with a prohibition mentioned in regulation 23(1).
(2) Where this paragraph applies, the reference to 7 years in section 68(3)(b) of CEMA(35) is to be read as a reference to 10 years.
(3) Paragraph (4) applies where a person is guilty of an offence under section 170(2) of CEMA in connection with a prohibition mentioned in regulation 23(1).
(4) Where this paragraph applies, the reference to 7 years in section 170(3)(b) of CEMA(36) is to be read as a reference to 10 years.
58. Chapter 1 of Part 2 of the Serious Organised Crime and Police Act 2005 (investigatory powers)(37) applies to any offence under Part 3 (Finance) and regulation 38 (finance: licensing offences).
59. The following provisions are to be regarded as not being financial sanctions legislation for the purposes of Part 8 of the Policing and Crime Act 2017(38)-
(a)regulation 25(1)(a) (making restricted goods and restricted technology available);
(b)regulation 26(1)(b) (transfer of restricted technology);
(c)regulation 28(1) and (2) (financial services and funds relating to restricted goods and restricted technology);
(d)regulation 29(1)(f)(i) and (g) (brokering services relating to financial services and funds relating to restricted goods and restricted technology).
60.-(1) A maritime enforcement officer may, for a purpose mentioned in paragraph (2) or (3), exercise any of the maritime enforcement powers in relation to-
(a)a British ship in foreign waters or international waters,
(b)a ship without nationality in international waters, or
(c)a foreign ship in international waters,
and a ship within sub-paragraph (a), (b) or (c) is referred to in this Part as "a relevant ship".
(2) The maritime enforcement powers may be exercised for the purpose of enforcing any of the following-
(a)the prohibition in regulation 23(1) (exports of restricted goods);
(b)the prohibition in regulation 24(1) (supply and delivery of restricted goods);
(c)a prohibition in regulation 25(1)(a) and (b) (making of restricted goods and restricted technology available);
(d)a prohibition in regulation 26(1)(a) and (b) (transfer of restricted technology).
(3) The maritime enforcement powers may also be exercised in relation to a relevant ship for the purpose of-
(a)investigating the suspected carriage of relevant goods on the ship, or
(b)preventing the continued carriage on the ship of goods suspected to be relevant goods.
(4) In this Part, "the maritime enforcement powers" are the powers conferred by regulations 62 and 63.
(5) This regulation is subject to regulation 64 (restrictions on exercise of maritime enforcement powers).
61.-(1) The following persons are "maritime enforcement officers" for the purposes of this Part-
(a)a commissioned officer of any of Her Majesty's ships;
(b)a member of the Ministry of Defence Police (within the meaning of section 1 of the Ministry of Defence Police Act 1987(39));
(c)a constable-
(i)who is a member of a police force in England and Wales,
(ii)within the meaning of section 99 of the Police and Fire Reform (Scotland) Act 2012(40), or
(iii)who is a member of the Police Service of Northern Ireland or the Police Service of Northern Ireland Reserve;
(d)a special constable-
(i)appointed under section 27 of the Police Act 1996(41),
(ii)appointed under section 9 of the Police and Fire Reform (Scotland) Act 2012, or
(iii)in Northern Ireland, appointed by virtue of provision incorporating section 79 of the Harbours, Docks, and Piers Clauses Act 1847(42);
(e)a constable who is a member of the British Transport Police Force;
(f)a port constable, within the meaning of section 7 of the Marine Navigation Act 2013(43), or a person appointed to act as a constable under provision made by virtue of section 16 of the Harbours Act 1964(44);
(g)a designated customs official within the meaning of Part 1 of the Borders, Citizenship and Immigration Act 2009 (see section 14(6) of that Act)(45);
(h)a designated NCA officer who is authorised by the Director General of the National Crime Agency (whether generally or specifically) to exercise the powers of a maritime enforcement officer under this Part.
(2) In this regulation, "a designated NCA officer" means a National Crime Agency officer who is either or both of the following-
(a)an officer designated under section 10 of the Crime and Courts Act 2013 as having the powers and privileges of a constable;
(b)an officer designated under that section as having the powers of a general customs official.
62.-(1) This regulation applies if a maritime enforcement officer has reasonable grounds to suspect that a relevant ship is carrying prohibited goods or relevant goods.
(2) The officer may-
(a)stop the ship;
(b)board the ship;
(c)for the purpose of exercising a power conferred by paragraph (3) or regulation 63, require the ship to be taken to, and remain in, a port or anchorage in the United Kingdom or any other country willing to receive it.
(3) Where the officer boards a ship by virtue of this regulation, the officer may-
(a)stop any person found on the ship and search that person for-
(i)prohibited goods or relevant goods, or
(ii)any thing that might be used to cause physical injury or damage to property or to endanger the safety of any ship;
(b)search the ship, or any thing found on the ship (including cargo) for prohibited goods or relevant goods;
(4) The officer may-
(a)require a person found on a ship boarded by virtue of this regulation to provide information or produce documents;
(b)inspect and copy such information or documents.
(5) The officer may exercise a power conferred by paragraph (3)(a)(i) or (b) only to the extent reasonably required for the purpose of discovering prohibited goods or relevant goods.
(6) The officer may exercise the power conferred by paragraph (3)(a)(ii) in relation to a person only where the officer has reasonable grounds to believe that the person might use a thing to cause physical injury or damage to property or to endanger the safety of any ship.
(7) The officer may use reasonable force, if necessary, in the exercise of any power conferred by this regulation.
63.-(1) This regulation applies if a maritime enforcement officer is lawfully on a relevant ship (whether in exercise of the powers conferred by regulation 62 or otherwise).
(2) The officer may seize any of the following which are found on the ship, in any thing found on the ship, or on any person found on the ship-
(a)goods which the officer has reasonable grounds to suspect are prohibited goods or relevant goods, or
(b)things within regulation 62(3)(a)(ii).
(3) The officer may use reasonable force, if necessary, in the exercise of any power conferred by this regulation.
64.-(1) The authority of the Secretary of State is required before any maritime enforcement power is exercised in reliance on regulation 60 in relation to-
(a)a British ship in foreign waters, or
(b)a foreign ship in international waters.
(2) In relation to a British ship in foreign waters other than the sea and other waters within the seaward limits of the territorial sea adjacent to any relevant British possession, the Secretary of State may give authority under paragraph (1) only if the State in whose waters the power would be exercised consents to the exercise of the power.
(3) In relation to a foreign ship in international waters, the Secretary of State may give authority under paragraph (1) only if-
(a)the home state has requested the assistance of the United Kingdom for a purpose mentioned in regulation 60(2) or (3),
(b)the home state has authorised the United Kingdom to act for such a purpose, or
(c)the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea 1982(46) or a UN Security Council Resolution otherwise permits the exercise of the power in relation to the ship.
65.-(1) Subject to paragraph (2), any expression used in this Part and in section 19 or 20 of the Act has the same meaning in this Part as it has in section 19 or (as the case may be) section 20 of the Act.
(2) For the purpose of interpreting any reference to "prohibited goods" or "relevant goods" in this Part, any reference in section 19 or 20 of the Act to a "relevant prohibition or requirement" is to be read as a reference to any prohibition specified in regulation 60(2)(a) to (d).
66.-(1) This regulation applies in relation to a notice required by regulation 37 (licences: general provisions) to be given to a person.
(2) The notice may be given to an individual-
(a)by delivering it to the individual,
(b)by sending it to the individual by post addressed to the individual at his or her usual or last-known place of residence or business, or
(c)by leaving it for the individual at that place.
(3) The notice may be given to a person other than an individual-
(a)by sending it by post to the proper officer of the body at its principal office, or
(b)by addressing it to the proper officer of the body and leaving it at that office.
(4) The notice may be given to the person by other means, including by electronic means, with the person's consent.
(5) In this regulation, the reference in paragraph (3) to a "principal office"-
(a)in relation to a registered company, is to be read as a reference to the company's registered office;
(b)in relation to a body incorporated or constituted under the law of a country other than the United Kingdom, includes a reference to the body's principal office in the United Kingdom (if any).
(6) In this regulation-
"proper officer"-
in relation to a body other than a partnership, means the secretary or other executive officer charged with the conduct of the body's general affairs, and
in relation to a partnership, means a partner or a person who has the control or management of the partnership business;
"registered company" means a company registered under the enactments relating to companies for the time being in force in the United Kingdom.
67. A person is not to be taken to commit an offence under the Export Control Order 2008 if the person would, in the absence of this regulation, commit an offence under both-
(a)article 34 of that Order, and
(b)any provision of Part 5 (Trade) or regulation 39 (trade: licensing offences), 47(6) or 48(5) (offences in connection with record-keeping).
68. Council Regulation (EU) No. 359/2011, concerning restrictive measures directed against certain persons, entities and bodies in view of the situation in Iran is revoked.
69.-(1) The Iran (Asset-Freezing) Regulations 2011(47) are revoked.
(2) The Export Control (Iran Sanctions) Order 2016(48) is amended as follows-
(a)in article 3-
(i)in paragraph (1), the words from ""the Iran Human Rights Regulation"", to the words "as amended from time to time" where it first appears in the paragraph, are omitted;
(ii)in paragraph (2) the words "or the Iran Human Rights Regulation" are omitted;
(b)articles 10, 11, 13 are omitted;
(c)in Article 16(2), the words "or Article 1b or 1c of the Iran Human Rights Regulation" are omitted.
70.-(1) Paragraphs (2) to (4) apply to a licence which-
(a)was granted, or deemed to be granted, by the Treasury under regulation 9 of the 2011 Regulations,
(b)was in effect immediately before the relevant date, and
(c)authorises conduct which would (on and after the relevant date, and in the absence of paragraphs (2) to (4)) be prohibited under Part 3 (Finance),
and such a licence is referred to in this regulation as "an existing financial sanctions licence".
(2) An existing financial sanctions licence has effect on and after the relevant date as if it had been issued by the Treasury under regulation 35(1) (Treasury licences).
(3) Any reference in an existing financial sanctions licence to the 2011 Regulations is to be treated on and after the relevant date as a reference to these Regulations.
(4) Any reference in an existing financial sanctions licence to a prohibition in-
(a)the 2011 Regulations, or
(b)the EU Iran (Human Rights) Regulation,
is to be treated on and after the relevant date as a reference to the corresponding prohibition in Part 3.
(5) Paragraph (6) applies where-
(a)an application for a licence, or for the variation of a licence, under the 2011 Regulations was made before the relevant date,
(b)the application is for the authorisation of conduct which would (on an after the relevant date) be prohibited under Part 3, and
(c)a decision to grant or refuse the application has not been made before that date.
(6) The application is to be treated on and after the relevant date as an application for a licence, or for the variation of a licence (as the case may be), under regulation 35(1) (Treasury licences).
(7) In this regulation-
"the 2011 Regulations" means the Iran (Asset-Freezing) Regulations 2011;
"the relevant date" means-
where regulations under section 56 of the Act provide that Part 3 comes into force at a specified time on a day, that time on that day;
otherwise, the date on which Part 3 comes into force.
71.-(1) Paragraphs (2) to (4) apply to a licence or authorisation granted by the Secretary of State which-
(a)was in effect immediately before the relevant date, and
(b)authorises an act-
(i)which would otherwise be prohibited by the EU Iran (Human Rights) Regulation, and
(ii)which would (on and after the relevant date, and in the absence of paragraphs (2) to (4)) be prohibited by Part 5 (Trade),
and such a licence or authorisation is referred to in this regulation as "an existing trade sanctions licence".
(2) An existing trade sanctions licence has effect on and after the relevant date as if it were a licence which had been issued by the Secretary of State under regulation 36 (trade licences).
(3) Any reference in an existing trade sanctions licence to a provision of the Export Control (Iran Sanctions) Order 2016 or the Export Control Order 2008 is to be treated on and after the relevant date as a reference to the corresponding provision of these Regulations (if any).
(4) Any reference in an existing trade sanctions licence to a prohibition in the EU Iran (Human Rights) Regulation is to be treated on and after the relevant date as a reference to the corresponding prohibition in Part 5 (Trade).
(5) In this regulation, "the relevant date" means-
(a)where regulations under section 56 of the Act provide that Part 5 comes into force at a specified time on a day, that time on that day;
(b)otherwise, the date on which Part 5 comes into force.
72.-(1) Paragraph (2) applies where-
(a)an application was made before the relevant date for a licence or authorisation under the Export Control (Iran Sanctions) Order 2016 or the EU Iran (Human Rights) Regulation,
(b)the application is for authorisation of an act prohibited by Part 5 (Trade), and
(c)a decision to grant or refuse the application has not been made before the relevant date.
(2) The application is to be treated on and after the relevant date as an application for a licence under regulation 36 (trade licences).
(3) In this regulation, "the relevant date" means-
(a)where regulations under section 56 of the Act provide that Part 5 comes into force at a specified time on a day, that time on that day;
(b)otherwise, the date on which Part 5 comes into force.
73.-(1) Where-
(a)a person was named in Annex Ⅰ of the EU Iran (Human Rights) Regulation immediately before the relevant date, and
(b)the person is a designated person immediately before the relevant date,
any reference in a provision mentioned in paragraph (2) to the date on which a person became a designated person is a reference to the date on which the person was named in that Annex.
(2) The provisions referred to in paragraph (1) are-
(a)regulation 33(5) (finance: exceptions from prohibitions), and
(b)paragraphs 6(b)(i) and 10(a) of Schedule 4 (Treasury licences: purposes).
(3) In this regulation-
"designated person" has the same meaning as it has in Part 3 (Finance);
"the relevant date" means-
where regulations under section 56 of the Act provide that Part 3 comes into force at a specified time on a day, that time on that day;
otherwise, the date on which Part 3 comes into force.
Alan Duncan
Minister of State
Foreign and Commonwealth Office
29th January 2019
Regulation 7(3)
1.-(1) The rules set out in the following paragraphs of this Schedule apply for the purpose of interpreting regulation 7(2).
(2) They also apply for the purpose of interpreting this Schedule.
2. If two or more persons each hold a share or right jointly, each of them is treated as holding that share or right.
3.-(1) If shares or rights held by a person and shares or rights held by another person are the subject of a joint arrangement between those persons, each of them is treated as holding the combined shares or rights of both of them.
(2) A "joint arrangement" is an arrangement between the holders of shares or rights that they will exercise all or substantially all the rights conferred by their respective shares or rights jointly in a way that is pre-determined by the arrangement.
(3) "Arrangement" has the meaning given by paragraph 12.
4.-(1) In relation to a person who has a share capital, a reference to holding "more than 50% of the shares" in that person is to holding shares comprised in the issued share capital of that person of a nominal value exceeding (in aggregate) 50% of that share capital.
(2) In relation to a person who does not have a share capital-
(a)a reference to holding shares in that person is to holding a right or rights to share in the capital or, as the case may be, profits of that person;
(b)a reference to holding "more than 50% of the shares" in that person is to holding a right or rights to share in more than 50% of the capital or, as the case may be, profits of that person.
5.-(1) A reference to the voting rights in a person is to the rights conferred on shareholders in respect of their shares (or, in the case of a person not having a share capital, on members) to vote at general meetings of the person on all or substantially all matters.
(2) In relation to a person that does not have general meetings at which matters are decided by the exercise of voting rights-
(a)a reference to holding voting rights in the person is to be read as a reference to holding rights in relation to the person that are equivalent to those of a person entitled to exercise voting rights in a company;
(b)a reference to holding "more than 50% of the voting rights" in the person is to be read as a reference to holding the right under the constitution of the person to block changes to the overall policy of the person or to the terms of its constitution.
6. In applying regulation 7(2) and this Schedule, the voting rights in a person are to be reduced by any rights held by the person itself.
7. A reference to the right to appoint or remove a majority of the board of directors of a person is to the right to appoint or remove directors holding a majority of the voting rights at meetings of the board on all or substantially all matters.
8. A reference to a board of directors, in the case of a person who does not have such a board, is to be read as a reference to the equivalent management body of that person.
9.-(1) A person holds a share "indirectly" if the person has a majority stake in another person and that other person-
(a)holds the share in question, or
(b)is part of a chain of persons-
(i)each of whom (other than the last) has a majority stake in the person immediately below it in the chain, and
(ii)the last of whom holds the share.
(2) A person holds a right "indirectly" if the person has a majority stake in another person and that other person-
(a)holds that right, or
(b)is part of a chain of persons-
(i)each of whom (other than the last) has a majority stake in the person immediately below it in the chain, and
(ii)the last of whom holds that right.
(3) For these purposes, a person ("A") has a "majority stake" in another person ("B") if-
(a)A holds a majority of the voting rights in B,
(b)A is a member of B and has the right to appoint or remove a majority of the board of directors of B,
(c)A is a member of B and controls alone, pursuant to an agreement with other shareholders or members, a majority of the voting rights in B, or
(d)A has the right to exercise, or actually exercises, dominant influence or control over B.
(4) In the application of this paragraph to the right to appoint or remove a majority of the board of directors, a person ("A") is to be treated as having the right to appoint a director if-
(a)any person's appointment as director follows necessarily from that person's appointment as director of A, or
(b)the directorship is held by A itself.
10. A share held by a person as nominee for another is to be treated as held by the other (and not by the nominee).
11.-(1) Where a person controls a right, the right is to be treated as held by that person (and not by the person who in fact holds the right, unless that person also controls it).
(2) A person "controls" a right if, by virtue of any arrangement between that person and others, the right is exercisable only-
(a)by that person,
(b)in accordance with that person's directions or instructions, or
(c)with that person's consent or concurrence.
12. "Arrangement" includes-
(a)any scheme, agreement or understanding, whether or not it is legally enforceable, and
(b)any convention, custom or practice of any kind.
13.-(1) Rights that are exercisable only in certain circumstances are to be taken into account only-
(a)when the circumstances have arisen, and for so long as they continue to obtain, or
(b)when the circumstances are within the control of the person having the rights.
(2) But rights that are exercisable by an administrator or by creditors while a person is subject to relevant insolvency proceedings are not to be taken into account while the person is subject to those proceedings.
(3) "Relevant insolvency proceedings" means-
(a)administration within the meaning of the Insolvency Act 1986(49)
(b)administration within the meaning of the Insolvency (Northern Ireland) Order 1989(50), or
(c)proceedings under the insolvency law of another country during which a person's assets and affairs are subject to the control or supervision of a third party or creditor.
(4) Rights that are normally exercisable but are temporarily incapable of exercise are to continue to be taken into account.
14. Rights attached to shares held by way of security provided by a person are to be treated for the purposes of this Schedule as held by that person-
(a)where apart from the right to exercise them for the purpose of preserving the value of the security, or of realising it, the rights are exercisable only in accordance with that person's instructions, and
(b)where the shares are held in connection with the granting of loans as part of normal business activities and apart from the right to exercise them for the purpose of preserving the value of the security, or of realising it, the rights are exercisable only in that person's interests.
Regulation 19
1. Firearms, ammunition and related accessories, as follows-
(a)firearms;
(b)ammunition specially designed for firearms;
(c)weapon-sights.
2. Simulators for training persons to use firearms.
3. Bombs and grenades.
4.-(1) Subject to sub-paragraph (3), the following types of vehicles-
(a)vehicles equipped with a water cannon, specially designed or modified for the purpose of riot control;
(b)vehicles specially designed or modified to be electrified to repel boarders;
(c)vehicles specially designed or modified to remove barricades, including construction equipment with ballistic protection;
(d)vehicles specially designed for the transport or transfer of prisoners or detainees;
(e)vehicles specially designed to deploy mobile barriers.
(2) Components for the vehicles specified in sub-paragraphs (a) to (e) that have been designed for the purposes of riot control.
(3) Vehicles that might otherwise fall within sub-paragraph (1)(a) to (e) are not internal repression goods if they are specially designed for the purposes of fire-fighting.
(4) For the purposes of this paragraph, "vehicle" includes a trailer.
5.-(1) Subject to sub-paragraph (3), equipment and devices specially designed to initiate explosions by electrical or non-electrical means, including-
(a)firing sets;
(b)detonators;
(c)igniters;
(d)boosters;
(e)detonating cord.
(2) Subject to sub-paragraph (3), components that have been specially designed for any thing mentioned in sub-paragraph (1).
(3) Sub-paragraphs (1) and (2) do not apply to any thing that has been specially designed for a specific commercial use.
(4) For the purpose of sub-paragraph (3), a "specific commercial use" means the actuation or operation by explosive means of other equipment or devices the function of which is not the creation of explosions, including-
(a)car air-bag inflaters;
(b)electric-surge arresters;
(c)fire sprinkler actuators.
6. Linear cutting explosive charges.
7. The following explosives and related substances-
(a)amatol;
(b)nitrocellulose (containing more than 12.5 % nitrogen);
(c)nitroglycol;
(d)pentaerythritol tetranitrate (PETN);
(e)picryl chloride;
(f)2,4,6-trinitrotoluene (TNT).
8.-(1) Subject to sub-paragraph (2), the following equipment designed for the protection of person-
(a)body armour providing ballistic or stabbing protection or both;
(b)helmets providing ballistic or fragmentation protection, or both, including anti-riot helmets;
(c)anti-riot shields and ballistic shields.
(2) Sub-paragraph (1) does not apply to-
(a)any thing specially designed to protect persons for the following purposes-
(i)participation in competitive sport;
(ii)ensuring safety at work;
(b)any thing mentioned in sub-paragraph (a) or (b) when accompanying a person for that person's own protection.
9. Night vision equipment.
10. Thermal imaging equipment.
11. Image intensifier tubes.
12. Razor barbed wire.
13. The following types of knives-
(a)knives that are designed for use by military personnel (military knives);
(b)knives that are designed for use as a weapon for inflicting injury (combat knives);
(c)bayonets with blade lengths in excess of 10 cm.
14. Any equipment which is specially designed or modified for the development or for one or more of the production phases of any item mentioned in this Schedule.
15. Any software which is specially designed for the simulators mentioned in paragraph 2.
16. Any technology which is specially designed to develop, produce or use any item mentioned in this Schedule.
17. For the purposes of this Schedule-
"develop" and "development" mean all phases prior to production, including design, design research, design analysis, design conceptualisation, assembly and testing of prototypes, pilot production schemes, design data, the process of transforming design data into a product, configuration design, integration design and producing layouts;
"firearm" means any portable barrelled weapon that expels, is designed to expel or may be converted to expel, a shot, bullet or projectile by the action of a combustible propellant;
"micro-programme" means a sequence of elementary instructions, maintained in a special storage, the execution of which is initiated by the introduction of its reference instruction into an instruction register;
"production" means all production phases, including construction, production engineering, manufacture, integration, assembly (mounting), inspection, testing and quality assurance;
"programme" means a sequence of instructions to carry out a process in, or convertible into, a form executable by an electronic computer;
"software" means a collection of one or more programmes or micro-programmes fixed in any tangible medium of expression;
"technology" means specific information necessary for the development, production or use of goods mentioned in this Schedule;
"use" means operation, installation (including on-site installation), maintenance and checking, repair, overhaul and refurbishing.
Regulation 20
1. Any goods which can perform any of the following functions (whether individually or as part of a system)-
(a)deep packet inspection;
(b)network interception, including associated systems management and data retention functions;
(c)radio frequency monitoring, including associated processing or examination;
(d)network and satellite jamming;
(e)remote infection;
(f)speaker recognition, including associated processing functions;
(g)IMSI, MSISDN, IMEI and TMSI interception and monitoring;
(h)tactical SMS, GSM, GPS, GPRS, UMTS, CDMA, and PSTN interception and monitoring;
(i)DHCP, SMTP and GTP information interception and monitoring;
(j)pattern recognition and pattern profiling;
(k)remote forensics;
(l)semantic processing;
(m)WEP and WPA code breaking;
(n)interception of VoIP (including proprietary and standard protocols).
2. Any software which can perform any of the functions described in paragraph 1(a) to (n) (whether individually or as part of a system).
3. Any software or other technology which is specially designed to develop, produce or use any goods or software described in paragraph 1 or 2.
4. For the purposes of this Schedule-
"develop" means all phases prior to production, including design, design research, design analysis, design conceptualisation, assembly and testing of prototypes, pilot production schemes, design data, the process of transforming design data into a product, configuration design, integration design and producing layouts;
"micro-programme" means a sequence of elementary instructions, maintained in a special storage, the execution of which is initiated by the introduction of its reference instruction into an instruction register;
"production" means all production phases, including construction, production engineering, manufacture, integration, assembly (mounting), inspection, testing and quality assurance;
"programme" means a sequence of instructions to carry out a process in, or convertible into, a form executable by an electronic computer;
"software" means a collection of one or more programmes or micro-programmes fixed in any tangible medium of expression;
"use" means operation, installation (including on-site installation), maintenance and checking, repair, overhaul and refurbishing.
5. The acronyms and abbreviations used in this Schedule have the following meaning-
| ABBREVIATION/ ACRONYM | MEANING | ADDITIONAL INFORMATION |
|---|---|---|
| IMSI | International Mobile Subscriber Identity | This is a unique identification code for each mobile telephony device, integrated in the SIM card and which allows identification of that SIM, via GSM and UMTS networks. |
| MSISDN | Mobile Subscriber Integrated Services Digital Network Number | This is a number that uniquely identifies a subscription in a GSM or a UMTS mobile network. It is the telephone number to the SIM card in a mobile phone and therefore identifies a mobile subscriber as well as the IMSI. |
| IMEI | International Mobile Equipment Identity | This is a number, usually unique, to identify GSM, WCDMA and IDEN mobile phones as well as some satellite phones. It is usually found printed inside the battery compartment of the phone. |
| TMSI | Temporary Mobile Subscriber Identity | |
| SMS | Short Message System | |
| GSM | Global System for Mobile Communications | |
| GPS | Global Positioning System | |
| GPRS | General Package Radio Service | |
| UMTS | Universal Mobile Telecommunications System | |
| CDMA | Code Division Multiple Access | |
| PSTN | Public Switch Telephone Networks | |
| DHCP | Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol | |
| SMTP | Simple Mail Transfer Protocol | |
| GTP | GPRS Tunnelling Protocol | |
| WEP | Wired Equivalent Privacy | |
| WPA | Wi-Fi Protected Access | |
| VoIP | Voice over Internet Protocol |
Regulation 35(2)
1. In this Schedule-
"consular post" has the same meaning as in the Vienna Convention on Consular Relations done at Vienna on 24 April 1963(51), and any reference to the functions of a consular post is to be read in accordance with that Convention;
"designated person" has the same meaning as it has in Part 3 (Finance);
"diplomatic mission" has the same meaning as in the Vienna Convention on Diplomatic Relations done at Vienna on 18 April 1961(52), and any reference to the functions of a diplomatic mission is to be read in accordance with that Convention;
"frozen funds or economic resources" means funds or economic resources frozen by virtue of regulation 11, and any reference to a person's frozen funds or economic resources is to funds or economic resources frozen as a consequence of the designation of that person for the purpose of that regulation.
2.-(1) To enable the basic needs of a designated person, or (in the case of an individual) any dependent family member of such a person, to be met.
(2) In the case of an individual in sub-paragraph (1), "basic needs" includes-
(a)medical needs;
(b)needs for-
(i)food;
(ii)payments of insurance premiums;
(iii)payments of tax;
(iv)rent or mortgage payments;
(v)utility payments.
(3) In the case of a person other than an individual in sub-paragraph (1), "basic needs" includes needs for-
(a)payment of insurance premiums;
(b)payment of reasonable fees for the provision of property management services;
(c)payment of remuneration, allowances or pensions of employees;
(d)payment of tax;
(e)rent or mortgage payments;
(f)utility payments.
(4) In sub-paragraph (1)-
"dependent" means financially dependent;
"family member" includes-
the wife or husband of the designated person;
the civil partner of the designated person;
any parent or other ascendant of the designated person;
any child or other descendant of the designated person;
any person who is a brother or sister of the designated person, or a child or other descendant of such a person.
3. To enable the payment of-
(a)reasonable professional fees for the provision of legal services, or
(b)reasonable expenses associated with the provision of legal services.
4. To enable the payment of-
(a)reasonable fees, or
(b)reasonable service charges,
arising from the routine holding or maintenance of frozen funds or economic resources.
5. To enable an extraordinary expense of a designated person to be met.
6. To enable, by the use of a designated person's frozen funds or economic resources, the implementation or satisfaction (in whole or in part) of a judicial, administrative or arbitral decision or lien, provided that-
(a)the funds or economic resources so used are the subject of the decision or lien,
(b)the decision or lien-
(i)was made or established before the date on which the person became a designated person, and
(ii)is enforceable in the United Kingdom, and
(c)the use of the frozen funds or economic resources does not directly or indirectly benefit any other designated person.
7.-(1) To enable anything to be done in connection with the performance of any humanitarian assistance activity.
(2) In sub-paragraph (1) "humanitarian assistance activity" includes the work of international and non-governmental organisations carrying out relief activities in Iran for the benefit of the civilian population there.
8. To enable anything to be done in order that the functions of a diplomatic mission or consular post in Iran or of an international organisation enjoying immunities in accordance with international law may be carried out.
9. To enable anything to be done to deal with an extraordinary situation.
10. To enable, by the use of a designated person's frozen funds or economic resources, the satisfaction of an obligation of that person (whether arising under a contract, other agreement or otherwise), provided that-
(a)the obligation arose before the date on which the person became a designated person, and
(b)no payments are made to another designated person, whether directly or indirectly.
(This note is not part of the Regulations)
These Regulations are made under the Sanctions and Anti-Money Laundering Act 2018 (c.13) to establish a sanctions regime in relation to Iran for the purpose of encouraging the Government of Iran to comply with international human rights law and to respect human rights. Following the UK's withdrawal from the European Union, these Regulations replace the EU sanctions regime in relation to persons responsible for committing serious human rights violations in Iran, implemented via an EU Council Decision and Regulation.
The Regulations confer a power on the Secretary of State to designate persons who are, or have been, involved in the commission of serious human rights violations or abuses in Iran. Designated persons may be excluded from the United Kingdom and may be made subject to financial sanctions, including having their funds and/or economic resources frozen. These Regulations also impose trade restrictions on specified goods and technology which may be used to repress the civilian population of Iran (as specified in Schedule 2 to these Regulations) and on specified goods and technology (as specified in Schedule 3 to these Regulations) which may be used for interception and monitoring services in Iran. A further trade sanction that is imposed by these Regulations is to prohibit the provision of interception and monitoring services to, or for the benefit of, the Government of Iran.
The Regulations provide for certain exceptions to this sanctions regime, in particular in relation to financial sanctions (for example to allow for frozen accounts to be credited with interest or other earnings) and also acts done for the purpose of national security or the prevention of serious crime. The Regulations also confer powers on the Secretary of State and the Treasury to issue licences in respect of activities that would otherwise be prohibited under the financial and trade sanctions imposed. Schedule 4 to these Regulations sets out the purposes pursuant to which the Treasury will issue such licences.
The Regulations make it a criminal offence to contravene, or circumvent, any of the prohibitions in these Regulations and prescribe the mode of trial and penalties that apply to such offences. The Regulations also confer powers on specified maritime enforcement officers to stop and search ships in international and foreign waters for the purpose of enforcing specified trade sanctions and to seize goods found on board ships which are being, or have been, dealt with in contravention, or deemed contravention, of those prohibitions. The Regulations prescribe powers for the provision and sharing of information to enable the effective implementation and enforcement of the sanctions regime.
Council Regulation (EU) No 359/2011 concerning restrictive measures directed against certain persons, entities and bodies in view of the situation in Iran is revoked by these Regulations. The Iran (Asset-Freezing) Regulations 2011 and certain provisions of the Iran (Export Control Sanctions) Order 2016 are also revoked by these Regulations.
The power to make regulations under Part 1 of the Sanctions and Anti-Money Laundering Act 2018 is conferred on an "appropriate Minister". Section 1(9)(a) of the Act defines an "appropriate Minister" as including the Secretary of State.
1979 c.2. Amendments have been made to this Act and are cited, where relevant, in respect of the applicable regulations.
OJ L 100 14.4.2011, p.1.
1971 c. 77. Section 8B was inserted by the Immigration and Asylum Act 1999 (c.33), section 8 and amended by the Immigration Act 2016 (c.19), section 76; and the Act, section 59 and Schedule 3, Part 1.
S.I. 2008/3231. Schedule 2 was substituted by S.I. 2017/85 and subsequently amended by S.I. 2017/697; S.I. 2018/165; and S.I. 2018/939. There are other instruments which amend other parts of the Order, which are not relevant to these Regulations.
2000 c.8. Section 142D was inserted by the Financial Services (Banking Reform) Act 2013 (c.33), section 4(1).
Section 142A was inserted by the Financial Services (Banking Reform) Act 2013, section 4(1).
Part 4A was inserted by the Financial Services Act 2012 (c.21), section 11(2) and amended by S.I. 2018/135.
Section 22 was amended by the Financial Guidance and Claims Act 2018 (c.10), section 27(4); the Financial Services Act 2012, section 7(1); and S.I. 2018/135.
S.I. 2001/544 as most recently amended by S.I. 2018/1288 and prospectively amended by S.I. 2018/1403.
Schedule 2 was amended by the Regulation of Financial Services (Land Transactions) Act 2003 (c.24), section 1; the Dormant Bank and Building Society Accounts Act 2008 (c.31), section 15 and Schedule 2, paragraph 1; the Financial Services Act 2012, sections 7(2) to (5) and 8; and S.I. 2013/1881; and it is prospectively amended by S.I. 2018/135.
1979 c.38. Section 1 was amended by the Law Reform (Miscellaneous Provisions) (Scotland) Act 1985 (c.73), Schedule 1, paragraph 40; the Planning (Consequential Provisions) Act 1990 (c.11), Schedule 2, paragraph 42; the Planning (Consequential Provisions) (Scotland) Act 1997 (c.11), Schedule 2, paragraph 28; the Enterprise and Regulatory Reform Act 2013 (c.24), section 70; S.I. 1991/2684; S.I. 2000/121 and S.I. 2001/1283.
Section 1210 was amended by S.I. 2008/565; S.I. 2008/567; S.I. 2008/1950; S.I. 2011/99; S.I. 2012/1809; S.I. 2013/3115; S.I. 2017/516 and S.I. 2017/1164.
Section 77A was inserted by the Finance Act 1987 (c.16), section 10 and amended by S.I. 1992/3095.
S.I. 1991/2724 is amended by S.I. 1992/3095; S.I. 1993/3014; and S.I. 2011/1043 and is prospectively revoked by S.I. 2018/1247.
Section 1(8) of the Act defines an "international obligation" as an obligation of the United Kingdom created or arising by or under any international agreement.
2016 c.25. Amendments have been made by the Policing and Crime Act 2017, Schedule 9, paragraph 74; the Data Protection Act 2018 (c.12), Schedule 19, paragraphs 198-203; S.I. 2018/652 and S.I. 2018/1123. Saving provisions are made by S.I. 2017/859.
2018 c.12. There are amendments to this Act that are not relevant to these Regulations.
2003 c.44. Amendments have been made to sections 154(1) and 281(5), but none are relevant to these Regulations.
1925 c.86 as amended by the Statute Law (Repeals) Act 2004 (c.14), section 1(1) and Schedule 1, Part 17. Other amendments have been made to section 33 that are not relevant to these Regulations.
1980 c.43. Amendments have been made to Schedule 3 that are not relevant to these Regulations.
The definition of "assigned matter" in section 1(1) of CEMA was amended by the Commissioners for Revenue and Customs Act 2005 (c.11), Schedule 4, paragraph 22(a); the Scotland Act 2012 (c.11), section 24(7); and the Wales Act 2014 (c.29), section 7(1).
Section 138 of CEMA was amended by the Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984 (c.60), section 114(1), Schedule 6, paragraph 37 and Schedule 7, Part 1; the Finance Act 1988 (c.39), section 11; the Serious and Organised Crime and Police Act 2005 (c.15), Schedule 7, paragraph 54; S.I 1989/1341; and S.I. 2007/288.
"The customs and excise Acts" is defined in section 1 of CEMA.
Section 145 of CEMA was amended by the Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984, section 114(1); the Commissioners for Revenue and Customs Act 2005, Schedule 4, paragraph 23(a); and S.I. 2014/834. Section 147 was amended by the Criminal Justice Act 1982 (c. 48), Schedule 14, paragraph 42; the Finance Act 1989, section 16(2); and the Criminal Justice Act 2003, Schedule 3, paragraph 50. Section 152 was amended by the Commissioners for Revenue and Customs Act 2005, Schedule 4, paragraph 26, and Schedule 5. Section 155 was amended by the Commissioners for Revenue and Customs Act 2005, Schedule, 4, paragraph 27, and Schedule 5.
The words "7 years" were inserted in section 68(3)(b) of CEMA by the Finance Act 1988, section 12.
The words "7 years" were inserted in section 170(3)(b) of CEMA by the Finance Act 1988, section 12.
2005 c.15. Chapter 1 of Part 2 has been amended by the Terrorism Act 2006 (c.11), section 33(3) and (4); the Northern Ireland (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act 2006 (c.33), sections 26(2) and 30(2) and Schedules 3 and 5; the Bribery Act 2010 (c.23), section 17(2) and Schedule 1; the Criminal Justice and Licensing (Scotland) Act 2010 (asp.13), section 203 and Schedule 7, paragraph 77; the Crime and Courts Act 2013 (c.22), section 17(4) and Schedule 8, paragraphs 157 and 159; the Criminal Finances Act 2017 (c.22), section 51(1); the Act, section 59(4) and Schedule 3, paragraph 4; and S.I. 2014/823.
See section 143(4)(f) and (4A), as inserted by the Act, Schedule 3, paragraph 8(1) and (3).
1987 c.4. Section 1 was amended by the Police Act 1996 (c.16), Schedule 7, paragraph 41; the Police (Northern Ireland) Act 1998 (c.32), Schedule 4, paragraph 16; the Police (Northern Ireland) Act 2000 (c.32), section 78(2); the Police Reform Act 2002 (c.30), section 79(3); and S.I. 2013/602.
1996 c.16. Section 27 was amended by the Police and Justice Act 2006 (c.48), Schedule 2, paragraph 23; the Policing and Crime Act 2009 (c.26), Schedule 7, paragraphs 1 and 6; and the Police Reform and Social Responsibility Act 2011 (c.13), Schedule 16, paragraphs 22 and 26.
1964 c.40. Section 16 has been amended by various instruments but none are relevant to these Regulations.
2009 c.11. Designated customs officials are designated, as either a general customs official or a customs revenue official, under sections 3 and 11 of this Act respectively.
Cmnd 8941.
S.I. 2011/1129 as amended by S.I. 2013/472; S.I. 2013/534; S.I. 2017/560; S.I. 2017/754; S.I. 2018/682 and S.I. 2018/1149.
S.I. 2016/503. No amendments have been made to the articles omitted by this paragraph.
United Nations Treaty Series, vol. 596, p. 261.
United Nations Treaty Series, vol. 500, p. 95.
